in the second treatise, how did locke come to the conclusion that men are
equal in a state of nature?

Locke has defined the state of nature as a state where every men has his own freedom to make his decisions and to dispose their persons and possession which fits in the bounds of law of nature.

In this state no one has to take permission from anyone to act or to make any decision related to anyone. Since no one has control over anyone’s act, hence all men are equal in this state of nature.

answer; ///i do believe that the correct answer for the above is ( which states would be free and which states would have check first good

explanation:

the muslim keep their culture pure by finding new value