The term "columbian exchange" is used to describe the exchange of goods, technology, education, and diseases between the americas and europe/africa after columbus "discovered" the americas, and their impact on the global economy. how does the columbian exchange explain why many countries in latin america are poor?

Because they had a massive exploration by the mother country (the one responsible by the conquest), which took a considerable part of their goods.

Explanation:

The Latin American colonies were different from the British Colonies (Thirteen Colonies and Canada) because they were explored massively by Portugal and Spain during the three centuries of colonialism. The Iberian countries were following an economic and political idea called Mercantilism which, as the main aspect, was the exploration of a colony, taking the goods and sending it to the mother country. Only a small part was left for the colony. And why those colonies don't rebel against the mother country, you may ask. Because since the very moment the Iberian countries began their colonization, they didn't leave any possibility of revolution, with laws and severe control of the settlers and natives. Any try of revolution or riot was massively dismissed with violence.

john locke, hope this .

explanation:

an oligopoly is a term used to clarify the structure of a particular market, industry, or organization. a market is considered oligopolistic or amazingly focused when it is shared between a few companies.