Help me plz quickly plz I beg you

< xcy ≅ < xby

step-by-step explanation:

in δcax and δbax,

so, δcax ≅ δbax (side-angle-side or sas)

since δcax ≅ δbax, we can conclude < acx ≅ < abx

in δacy and δaby,

so, δacy ≅ δaby (side-angle-side or sas)

since δacy ≅ δaby, we can conclude < acy ≅ < aby

now,

< acy ≅ < aby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < abx + < xby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < acx + < xby   (since < acx ≅ < abx already proved above)

subtracting < acx from both sides, we get

< acx + < xcy -< acx ≅ < acx + < xby -< acx

cancelling out < acx and -< acx from both sides, we get

< xcy ≅ < xby (proved)

aloha~! my name is zalgo and i am here to you out on this amazing day. to answer your question, yes, nonzero numbers can have a greatest common factor and that would be 1. still don't get it? let me considering every number is divisible by 1 and hence every number has 1 as a factor of theirs. so, if 2 nonzero numbers didn't share any gcf (greatest common factor), they would still have a factor in common and that would be 1.

i hope that this ! : p

"stay and stay proud! " - zalgo

(by the way, do you mind marking me as brainliest? i'd greatly appreciate it! mahalo! x3)

vhhhbnbb. ddben jenner v