Complete all parts of the problem.

(a)

(b)

(c) No, because no two sets are disjoint. Why? Each of the contain the endpoint 1, so at the very least, for .

(d)

(e)

(f)

because as i gets larger, the set gets smaller. The infinite union will be equivalent to the largest set in the family of sets.

(g)

because 1 + 1/n converges to 1 as n goes to infinity, so converges to the singleton set {1} as i goes to infinity.

for finding the midpoint of any given 2 pair of points simply add the respective x coordinates with other x coordinate and the y coordinate with other y coordinate and divide them by 2

in your question it will be :

(3+1)/2 for the x coordinate of mid point i.e 2

[8+(-4)]/2 for the y coordinate of midpoint i.e 2

so coordinates of mid point of points (3,8) and (1,-4) will be (2,2)

all it means is function 3