; if that were the case, we'd end up with a logarithm as the antiderivative, and it's easy to show that in that case the integral diverges.
, then the numerator is of degree larger than 0, and as 
we have 
.
, then the degree of the numerator will be negative, which would mean the numerator approaches 0 as 
. So the integral only converges for For what values of p makes the integral converge?
...
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