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Social Studies, 22.07.2020 19:01 cheryljoseph69

In explaining how a person can enter a social contract and be obliged to the laws of civil society, locke invokes the notion of “tacit consent”. Rawls who is also a social contract theorist of sorts argues that a social contract can arise only from hypothetical consent. What is the difference between locke’s notion of tacit consent and rawls’s notion of hypothetical consent?

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