Which of the following would cause a decrease in a nation's long-run economic growth?
I. A decline in productivity.
II. An increase in the labor force participation rate.
III. A decrease in the number of hours in the workweek.

I only.
II only.
III only.
I and II only.
I and III only.

I and III only, decrease in productivity does indicate production loss can cause harm across the chain of trade and operation. It is important to the investment and to the market each number of hours they work as this tells us if the market is stable. For example financial market contributes output 40% major cities and over 4% for the whole country. Where a decrease in labor force occurs this does not tell us there is a problem with cash flow. It is usually services that suffer with decline in productivity. An example in behavior patterns in populous in manufacturing worldwide, show unhappiness in managerial levels compared to management roles for women in poorer countries, where a decrease in productivity could make this situation worse. a decrease in hours would affect more economically for both poorer countries and financial market output countries which dominate the world today nationally combined. This also includes work hours with adjoining countries for 40% of the world being farming and smaller scientific contributions that show and tell us they are more happier in their work and longer hour patterns. One example of this is within contentment levels found in discrete survey data with both phd Degree Masters etc qualified all in which showed each percentage for managers less in the broader markets of customer service and manufacturing. I and III affects all.  

Explanation:

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