If an embryo made testosterone normal but did not have testosterone receptors in any of its cells, would the embryo develop female reproductive structures, male structures, or no reproductive structures?

In the given case, the baby would be considered male genetically, however, the baby would be sterile and no reproductive structures will form.  

•If an embryo possess testosterone, however, do not exhibit its receptor then the Wolffian duct would fail to get the signals and fail to develop into the male se-x organ.  

•Also the Mullerian duct will also not get the signals so parts like ovaries and uterus would also fail to develop.  

•However, in the given case, the baby would be regarded as male genetically but it would be sterile.  

•This phenomenon is termed as androgen insensitivity syndrome.  

•In the condition, the embryo would possess genetic make up of male with one X and one Y chromosome, however, will fail to develop any reproductive composition.  

•In this condition, the baby would be born with inactive undescended testis and possess no uterus thus the baby would be sterile.  

Thus, no reproductive structures will form in the given case.

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The embryo would develop no reproductive structures.

Explanation:

If there are no receptors to receive the testosterone and in turn activate certain cellular activities that would lead to reproductive structures, there would be no reproductive structures at all. The organism would also not suddenly be able to develop female reproductive structures either.

yes? sounds right, but you didn’t ask a question.