In humans, the allele for having dimples is dominant to the allele for not having dimples. what would you expect to see in the offspring of a woman with dimples who is homozygous (dd) and a man who is heterozygous (dd) for the trait?

The offspring will have dimples.
The offspring would have dimples. There is no chance for two recessive alleles to be in a child since the woman is homozygous for dimples. There is only one recessive allele that is in the "gene mix", and having one dominant allele with one recessive allele still gives the trait of dimples.

Idk i think the answer choice is number 1

Ithink sanforcisco california (i am not 100% sure) if you feel the opposite so that lol