The allele that codes for "having freckles" is dominant (f) over the allele that codes for "no freckles" (f). a heterozygous, freckled male has a child with a homozygous recessive, non-freckled female. what is the probability that their child has freckles? 1/4 1 the probability cannot be determined. 1/2

1/2

Explanation:

Since it has a code "having freckles" is dominant (f) over the allele that codes for "no freckles".

The father is heterozygous

The mother is homozygous recessive

To understand the concept better:

Homogenous trait is made up of two same alleles whereas heterozygous traits are made up of two different alleles.

Example:

Homogenous allele: PP or pp

Heterozygous allele: Tt

To determine whether it is dominant or recessive:

The allele is said to be  dominant if it has Pp and recessive when the allele is pp

So the probability is 50% of having freckles and 50% of not having freckles

i think that is new experiments yield untrustworthy data and should be carefully considered, because you don't know what will happen with the experiments.