Which of the following explains why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward? a) the interest-rate effect, the real-balances effect, and the foreign purchases effect b) the investment effect, the real-purchases effect, and the foreign purchases effect c) the interest-rate effect, the real-purchases effect, and the foreign purchases effect d) the investment effect, the real-balances effect, and the international effect

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Real balance effect: This effect states the relationship between the price level and the purchasing power of the consumer. If there is a higher price level in an economy then this will reduce the purchasing power of the consumers and results in a fall in investment expenditure, net exports and consumption expenditure. That's why aggregate demand curve is slopes downward.

Interest-rate effect: This effect states the cost of borrowing funds with the price inflation in an economy. If there is a higher interest rate then most of the consumers cut down there borrowings activities which is one of the reason of downward sloping demand curve.

Foreign purchases effect: When there is a fall in the price level then as a result the price in the United states falls relative to the foreign prices. Hence, there is an increase in the U.S exports and decrease in the U.S imports.

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