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Business, 15.08.2020 02:01 madone8365

A seller sold a house to a buyer allowing the buyer to take over the loan on a "subject to" basis. After 2 years, the buyer defaulted on the loan. Who would be liable to the lender for the note?

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A seller sold a house to a buyer allowing the buyer to take over the loan on a "subject to" basis. A...
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