Studies indicate that married men on average earn more income than unmarried men of the same age and education level. Why must we be cautious in concluding that marriage is the cause and higher income is the effect? We do not want to fall into the causation fallacy because the sole cause of greater income is not directly caused by marriage. There could be many other factors involved.

all of the answers provided are correct

Explanation:

The causation fallacy refers to when a cause is incorrectly identified for a specific effect in a research study. That being said, all of the answers provided are correct. There is no clear indication or proof in this study that shows that "marriage" is the sole factor that causes the difference in pay between the men in question. There can be many other factors in play such as social connections, economic backgrounds, geographic locations, field of work, etc.

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