Would you expect the amount of overhead applied for a period to equal the actual overhead costs of the period? Why or why not?

No.

Explained below

Explanation:

No, I wouldn't expect the amount of overhead applied for a period to equal the actual overhead costs of the period. This is because, due to the fact that the predetermined overhead rate is purely an estimate of what costs are projected to be established before the period begins, it means that there will always be a difference between the predetermined costs and the actual overhead costs .

it's actually a very difficult task, due to not many people can make 2 million dollars in 2 years. besides that, to the not-so-realistic ideas, you can create a business. it could be practically anything, but make it into a business that isn't that known yet, you get me? also, lets not forget about stock market. that's where all the good stuff happens. use investments at the beginning and begin to raise up your business or whatever you're going to do. as this is a very non-realistic idea, it's still worth the shot!

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