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Business, 08.02.2021 19:00 christophergaudette0

Per usual, assume that the representative consumer, both in Europe and in the US, has a utility function given by u(c, l) . As for their budget constraints, assume that the real wage in both Europe and the US equals w and that there does not exist physical capital. Rather than assume the presence of lump-sum taxes, assume instead that there exists an income tax so that the relevant real wage is now the after-tax real wage, (1i )w where the subscript i allows for a different tax rate in Europe rather than the US. Show how this simple model can explain the difference in hours worked. What does it imply about the possibility of any differences in consumption between Europe and the US?

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