English, 09.09.2020 18:01 jwoody5495
What is the MOST LIKELY reason that Twain wrote the passage in nonstandard English dialect? A) Twain shows that the narrator is uneducated. B) Twain does not know Standard American English. C) Twain believes that his audience is uneducated. D) Twain shows that the Widow Douglas is uneducated.
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What is the MOST LIKELY reason that Twain wrote the passage in nonstandard English dialect? A) Twain...
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