Which claim do both passages support? To say that "all men are equal" in 1716, when slavery
was flourishing in every corner of the world and most
eastern Europeans themselves were farmers who could
be sold along with the land they worked, was like
announcing that there was a new sun in the sky. In the
Age of Sugar, when slavery was more brutal than ever
before, the idea that all humans are equal began to
spread-toppling kings, overturning governments,
transforming the entire world.
Sugar was the connection, the tie, between slavery and
freedom. In order to create sugar, Europeans and
colonists in the Americas destroyed Africans, turned
them into objects. Just at that very same moment,
Europeans-at home and across the Atlantic-decided
that they could no longer stand being objects
New technology in the sugar trade was the key factor
in ending involuntary servitude worldwide.
Economic demand for sugar was the most important
factor in the endurance of servitude and serfdom.
Economic demand for sugar was the most important
factor in ending servitude and serfdom worldwide.
New technology in the sugar trade made it possible
for people to understand that humans are equal