At first, why is the knight in “The Wife of Bath’s Tale” not punished for his violent crime against the maiden?

Because the queen wanted the power to decide his fate. His initial punishment was death. Instead they wanted the power over him. Made him find out want women desired and his body was given to them to use as saw fit.

Explanation:

answer: lol you have autism

explanation: lol you have autism

read this passage from the crisis. what rationale is paine using for going to war with great britain? my own line of reasoning is to myself as straight and clear as a ray of light. not all the treasures of the world, so far as i believe, could have induced me to support an offensive war, for i think it murder; but if a thief breaks into my house, burns and destroys my property, and kills or threatens to kill me, or those that are in it, and to "bind me in all cases whatsoever" to his absolute will, am i to suffer it? what signifies it to me, whether he who does it is a king or a common man; my countryman or not my countryman; whether it be done by an individual villain, or an army of them? if we reason to the root of things we shall find no difference; neither can any just cause be assigned why we should punish in the one case and pardon in the other.

it is waged war against an army of countrymen

it would lead to independence from britain

it would be an offensive war

it would be a defensive war