In Hamlet, Prince Hamlet announces that he will pretend to be insane, but some scholars have argued that Hamlet ends up not just pretending to be insane and posit that he may actually descend into madness at certain points in the play. What do you think? Was Hamlet’s insanity entirely fake? Or did he actually become mad at times? Cite evidence from acts I, II, and III to support your answer.

the thesis statement : d

paine is arguying that they had tried everything before coming to the conclusion that they needed to fight for their freedom.

argument: "every quiet method for peace hath been ineffectual."

claim 1: "our prayers have been rejected with disdain; and only tended to convince us, that nothing flatters vanity, or confirms obstinacy in kings more than repeated petitioning and nothing hath contributed more than that very measure to make the kings of europe absolute."

claim 2: "wherefore, since nothing but blows will do, for god’s sake, let us come to a final separation, and not leave the next generation to be cutting throats, under the violated unmeaning names of parent and child."

the answer is irony!

i agree definitely that