Does Girard succeed in presenting a valid interpretation of Hamlet?

“I believe Girard actually present a valid interpretation on the Hamlet. Girard argues that Hamlet, (which often considered as the greatest of the revenge tragedies, actually does not depict the true revenge)
I view revenge as actions in order to ahieve a certain satisfaction after the feeling of being treated unfairly. Hamlet on the other hand, potray both uncertainty in how he feel and no satisfaction whatsoever after doing it, which contradict the purpose of the murder in the first place)”

please mark me brainliest