According to Aristotle "a perfect tragedy should,... be arranged not on the simple but on the complex plan. It should, moreover, imitate actions that excite pity and fear...by the misfortune of a man like ourselves." How does Shakespeare comply with Aristotle's theory of the perfect tragedy in Hamlet's last scene?
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According to Aristotle "a perfect tragedy should,... be arranged not on the simple but on the comple...
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