Which statement is not a reason that Shakespeare may have written The Tragedy of Julius Caesar for the Elizabethan audience?
O Shakespeare wanted to illustrate that Elizabeth I and Julius Caesar had nothing in common.
O Shakespeare wanted to show the ways that a successful authority could be toppled by the people.
O Shakespeare wanted to make thy of a society that was also divided by status.
O Shakespeare wanted to create controversy by showing the issues that might be caused by England's increasing
power.

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answer is personification

ill check : )

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i think it may be b, i'm not exactly too sure on this. but b seems to make more sense.