What are Hamlet's madness in relation to an imbalance or "disorder" among the humors?

The interpretation which best fits the evidence best is that Hamlet was suffering from an acute depressive illness, with some obsessional features. He could not make a firm resolve to act. In Shakespeare's time there was no concept of acute depressive illness, although melancholy was well known.

c. is the answer to your question.

explanation:

yes, because if hes blind not deaf