The gentleman who describes ophelia to gertrude and horatio says she “speaks things in doubt, / that carry but half sense: her speech is nothing.” are ophelia’s words disregarded in the play? are women’s words disregarded in contemporary culture? your answer should be at least 250 words.

This excerpt doesn't tell us that Ophelia's words are disregarded in the play. It only tells us that the Gentleman wants to disregard them, as well as all the parties involved in her breakdown as a character, including Gertrude, Claudius, and Hamlet himself. By achieving this kind of conflict between Ophelia's words and the way others perceive/disregard them, Shakespeare wants to convey the fact that Ophelia has been used for other people's purposes. Hamlet used her as a part of his ploy; her own father and brother used her to suit their own interests as well. She is merely a puppet of other people's plans; but her character is so much more than that, and that's why she goes mad. She just can't bear the amount of negligence she endures - and not because she is a fragile person (being a woman), but because she just wants to be treated equally. Polonius warns her that Hamlet would use her, but he also does precisely that - uses her for his own purpose, forbidding her to continue the relationship.
In contemporary culture, women's words have become louder, but it doesn't mean they are heard and understood properly. Women have to invest twice as much effort as men if they want not to be disregarded as the "fairer sex" (to use a phrase from Shakespeare's time, which has survived to this day), or as individuals who have nothing important to say. Even in many political campaigns that propagate themselves to protect women's rights, women are used as a tool for different purposes - popularization of one political option or another. Although women have been fighting for more than two centuries for their right to be treated equally, the fight isn't nearly over.

So, what’s the question here?