Based on the text you’ve read, does locke think that one type of government versus another is more susceptible to becoming tyrannical?

Locke states in section 201 that it would be a mistake to think that tyranny can only occur in a monarchy. Though he is writing mostly about the monarchical system of his country, he brings up other examples of governments that had tyrants, including ancient Athens, considered the world’s first democracy, and ancient Rome during its republican period. He states that power in any hands that is used to “impoverish, harass, or subdue” will make the use of power tyrannical.

i would think its c but i'm not sure