Extra point to whoever gets this right. *i know the answer, just giving free points* why was england the first to industrialize?

Because it had the technology and capacity to do so. They also had a strong demand for coal abroad, thus they had a greater incentive to industrialise. Coal + industrialisation = $$.
Not only this but the evolving industrial sector for weaving, thanks to the spinning Jenny lead to further industrialisation. The mechanisation of farming led to urbanisation as well. Displaced farmers and their families moving to the cities in search of work.

When analyzing the american landscape at the time, it can be clear that some women did not support the suffrage movement due to the fact that it would impact their current way of life, leading to fewer protections and safeguarding under the us law, and in their family lives.