How does the appeal of the forbidden fruit in genesis 3: 6 compare to the appeal of the world mentioned in i john 2: 16?

This is actually a very complex question. Unfortunately, I have 2 different versions available to me and Genesis 3:6 is unfamiliar to my wife (my resident expert) as it written. The problem is with Adam who is not present in most versions, but that has nothing to do with your question.

Modern people have a bit of trouble interpreting the Bible which seems to hold Eve responsible for their downfall. The church I go to doesn't wholly agree, but I think that is what the Bible seems to be saying.

Gen. 3.6 in the modern KJ says it this way. ... the woman saw that the tree was good for food, that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree desirable to make one wise, she took of its fruit and ate. Look at how the senses are appealed to. It is very very visceral. Saw, (good food and pleasant to eyes), makes one wise. Ate (implies taste).

Is it the intent to include the sensory appeal here with what 1 John is saying.

For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. You have to ask yourself if they are the same kind of thing. That's the complication of the question, and resolving that complication is your answer.

Satan presented her with one of God's Grand Creations and twisted it with lies and misrepresentation. His was a spiritual sin.

What John is talking about are things like fornication. They different things.

they spoke the dravidian language. hope this , correct me if im wrong

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