why does the above painting fit the neoclassical style?
a the subtleness
b. restrained drama of this scene
c. the classical influence of the figure
d the bright colors used
select the best answer from the choices provided

c. the classical influence of the figure

Explanation:

Neoclassical painting is a pictorial movement born in Rome in the 1760s and developed throughout Europe, especially taking root in France until about 1830, when Romanticism became the dominant pictorial trend.

Neoclassicism is situated between Rococo and Romanticism. But on many occasions, the transition from one style to another is not easy, because they have similar features. If the characteristic of Neoclassicism was to revive another era, specifically classical Antiquity, it really does not differ from trying to recreate the Middle Ages or life in Eastern countries, since in both cases exotic themes were used, outside the reality of society in which the painter works. In reality, classicism and Romanticism are bourgeois stylistic tendencies that react to the aristocratic Rococo, and as such a bourgeois ideology, it aspires both to order and stability, and to the freedom that was denied to them by the Old Regime; in the same way, it is the bourgeoisie that raises the dialectic between reason, which defends a more rational political system than that of the Old Regime, and the feeling, often pure bourgeois sentimentality against the cynical coldness and indifference of the aristocracy. In this sense, Neoclassicism would represent the aspiration to an order governed by reason, while Romanticism would represent the equally bourgeois ideas of freedom in a world dominated by individual sentiment.

And this without forgetting that in this neoclassical period of 1760-1830 artists such as Goya, Füssli or Blake worked, escaping any classification, extolling more irrational and madness than old-fashioned serenity. And also coincides in time with the German pre-Romanesque movement of Sturm und Drang.