Many historians have argued that by the late nineteenth century the industrialized nations of europe had achieved global economic dominance more through force and coercion than through the superiority of their industrial products.
which of the following nineteenth-century developments would best support this contention?

a. the growth of industrial production in north america
b. the grown of south american agricultural exports
c. the abolition of slavery in the americas
d. the decline of the indian textile industry’s share of global manufacturing

There are two good answers here:

a. The growth of industrial production in North America.

c. The abolition of slavery in the Americas.

Explanation:

These two points are not in contradiction. Contrary to the case of European colonialists who had colonized Africa and Asia, America and their businessmen did not have colonies to exploit or on which to impose conditions to their advantage. Besides, America´s industrial wealth and might in the late 19th century was not based on slave labor. Slavery was abolished as a result of the Civil War.  

b: the establishment clause  

b: socialism  

the missile gap was the cold war term used in the us for the perceived superiority of the number and power of the ussr's missiles in comparison with its own (a lack of military parity).