Many historians have argued that by the late nineteenth century the industrialized nations of Europe had achieved global economic dominance more through force and coercion than through the superiority of their industrial products. Which of the following nineteenth-century developments would best support this contention? A) The growth of South American agricultural exports. B) The abolition of slavery in the Americas. C) The growth of industrial production in North America. D) The decline of the Indian textile industry's share of global manufacturing.