In 1865, slavery was abolished, and all men were given the right to vote. Did that actually happen? Why or why not?

Slavery may have been abolished but it was still a very long time before people of all races enjoyed the same luxuries. Although they were technically free from slavery they ended up being slaves again for a very long time in order to have jobs and be able to support themselves and there families. Also just because slavery had been abolished it doesn't mean people just started treating African Americans equally, there was still a lot of extreme racism and it ended with a lot of violence.

it wanted to boycott trade with enemy nations.

part a. there were 250 teenagers surveyed (100% of tenagers = 250)therefore 1 % = 250/100 = 2.5 76% = 1% x 76 = 2.5 x 76 = 190 teenagers of the 250 surveyed liked burgerspart b: jane surveyed 25% (which is equal to 50 teenagers, i.e. a quarter of the teenagers surveyed is 50) to get 100% we simply get 4 quarters, i.e. multiply 50 by 4 = 200 teenagers were surveyed by jane. part c: it is impossible to give an example where a percentage is greater than 100%, since, by definition , percentage means "per 100".