Justice Harlan says that separate but equal is "inconsistent with the civil freedom and equality before the law established by the Constitution." What does he mean by this statement? Do you agree? Why or why not?

He meant that the doctrine created by Fergusson was unconstitutional and was not vitiated by the country's legal undertones.

Explanation:

Ferguson created the “separate but equal” doctrine to maintain racial segregation in the country in a masked way. He claimed that this doctrine allowed public spaces to be separated between whites and blacks, but spaces destined for blacks had the same quality as spaces separated from whites. Thus, according to him, whites would not be forced to mix with blacks.

However, Judge Harlan stated that this doctrine was unconstitutional and that it was against the objectives of the American government, as it maintained a discriminatory and discriminatory nature and therefore would not be proven.

As civilized citizens, we have to agree with Harlan as this doctrine encourages racism that must be suppressed and not encouraged.

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