‘Germany lost ww1 because of increasing improvements in the effectiveness of the British army.’ How far do you agree with this statement? Explain your answer. (16 marks) (SPaG 4 marks)

this isn't a question and if you're going to list things be kind and use commas.

for the 2 countries u can do china and america because america has a democratic government while china has a communist government.

a democracy is a government run by the people either by directly voting or indirectly by electing representatives. an oligarchy is a government run by a few or a small group of people. a democracy and oligarchy are similar because both in an oligarchy and an indirect democracy, a small group of induvial determine the laws for a large group of people they are different because in an oligarchy it is easier to control and they do not have to answer to a large number of people in the country, unlike a democracy where they do have to answer to a large number of people an county that is a democracy would be the united states. a country that is an oligarchy would be the china.

the answer is heceta and bodega y quadra. i hope i you with this question!

they lost control of territory in the middle east, but preserved turkey's political independence.