Which statement is true about the equation fraction 3 over 4z − fraction 1 over 4z + 1 = fraction 2 over 4z + 1?
it has no solution.
it has one solution.
it has two solutions.
it has infinitely many solutions.

It has no solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

I just did the test and got this right (as a matter of fact, I got 100% ^^)

It has no solution because no matter how much you multiply the two fractions to the left, it will always equal to 1/2, and 2/4, no matter how many times you multiply it, will always equal to 1/2 as well. Therefore, since those two cancel out, and the leftover numbers in the equation aren't the same, there is no possible solution for this equation.  

if you explain the the question more correctly i might be able to answer this better

step-by-step explanation:

hello :

70y^8 + 30y^6 = 2 ( 35 y^8 + 15y^6)

the lenght is : 35 y^8

the width is : 15y^6