Given: am = mc, bn = nc prove: △abc∼△mnc

step-by-step explanation:

we can use this expression to calculate the energy gain as a particle moves with a field or the energy loss as it moves against it. (note that it is also used to define the electron-volt, a unit of energy equal to that gained by an electron as it falls through a pd of 1 v, i.e. w = 1 ev = 1.6 10-19 c 1 v = 1.6 10-19j).in fact this expression is really nothing more than the statement that potential is the potential energy per unit charge. in this case, v= w/qis simply stating that the change in potential energy(or work done) per unit charge is equal to the change in potential (or potential difference), v.student questions: uniform electric fields2electron beamcathode+5 kvanode0 v

168

step-by-step explanation:

first off, we know that he drove 3.5 hours at a rate of 48 mph.

knowing that, we want to see how many miles he drove all-together.

in this case, we can just multiply 48 by 3.5.

48 * 3.5 = 168

hello from mrbilldoesmath!

answer:   x^2 + y^2 = 1024

discussion:

the equation of a circle with center (h,k) and radius "r" is

(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2.

in our case

(x-0)^2 + (y-0) ^2 = 32^2 = 1024

you,

mrb