The inverse of f(x)= x2 is also a function

The answer is: False, the inverse of is not a function.

It's known that most of functions don't have an inverse function. Inverse function is known for being the result of inverting a one to one function, it means that for each y should be only one x. If the function is not a one to one function, it doesn't have an inverse that is a function

The given function is not a one to one function, let's prove it:

Let's evaluate two differentes values: 5 and -5

Evaluating 5

Evaluating -5

We have the same output for differents x values, so, the function is not a one to one function, meaning that its inverse is not a function.

Have a nice day!

< 4, -5>

step-by-step explanation:

starting from g. we move 4 right and then 5 down to get to h. that means the vector is < 4, -5>

yess

step-by-step explanation:

idk whyy this is happening, i cant even read my notification bc i keep getting errors

~coco