Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply.

1. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

2. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

3. its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

4. its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
need answer !

The correct options are 1 and 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

It can be written as

            .... (1)          

At y-intercept, the value of x is 0.

For any value of y, this statement is not true. It means there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Option 1 is correct.

Interchange x and y in equation 1 to find the inverse of the function.

This function does not have any x-intercepts. because for any value of x, the value of y can not be 0.

Since the inverse function have not x-intercept, therefore the function have no y-intercept.

Option 3 is correct.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Step-by-step explanation:

x = ± 6i

step-by-step explanation:

x^2 = -36

take the square root of each side

sqrt(x^2) = sqrt(-36)

we know sqrt(ab) = sqrt(a) sqrt(b)

x = ±sqrt(36) sqrt(-1)

we know that sqrt (-1) = i

x = ± 6i

51

step-by-step explanation:

73-22=51 the   mass number minus the amount of protons gives you the amount of neutrons