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Mathematics, 16.07.2019 18:10 isaiah1027

Agraphing calculator is recommended. use the squeeze theorem to show that lim x → 0 (x2 cos(15πx)) = 0. illustrate by graphing the functions f(x) = −x2, g(x) = x2 cos(15πx), and h(x) = x2 on the same screen. let f(x) = −x2, g(x) = x2 cos(15πx), and h(x) = x2. then ≤ cos(15πx) ≤ ⇒ ≤ x2 cos(15πx) ≤ . since lim x→0 f(x) = lim x→0 h(x) = , by the squeeze theorem we have lim x→0 g(x) = .

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