5. let n be any positive integer. (a) explain why m = n1+ 1 has a prime divisor greater than n. (b) explain why part (b) implies that there are infinitely many prime numbers.

the answer is:

the answer is:

to solve the problem, we need to remember the quotient of power property, it's defined by the following relation:

if we have a quotienf of powers that have the same base, we need to keep the same base and subtract the exponent of the denominator power to the exponent of the numerator power.

so, we are given the expression:

then, calculating we have:

hence, the answer is:

have a nice day!

beluga wheeeaaalle matt

step-by-step explanation:

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 89 d

i took the test