An economist says that there is "absolutely no chance" of a country's economy being in a recession in the last quarter of the year. however, a leading economic indicator which has a 70% probability of giving a correct indication, suggests that there will be a recession in this quarter. given that the indicator is unbiased, the posterior probability of a recession in the last quarter of the year is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 0 0.7 1 impossible to calculate based on the information given

3,000,540

step-by-step explanation:

p ÷ r = tan(x)

step-by-step explanation:

given that there is a figure below shows a right triangle: a right triangle is shown with hypotenuse equal to q units and the length of the legs equal to p units and r units.

graph is missing so i will create the graph as per given information.

the angle between the legs having lengths p units and q units is y degrees. the angle between the legs having lengths r units and q units is x degrees.

now we need to find about what is p ÷ r equal to.

so we can use trigonometric ratio tan(x)=[altitude]/[base] to find the value of p ÷ r, because p is the altitude and r is the base.

p ÷ r=tan(x)

hence final answer is p ÷ r=tan(x).

step-by-step explanation: