Let f(x) = n^2 - 1, where n is an integer and n > = 1. is f(x) always divisible
by (x - 1)? justify.

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(Assume x is not 1.)

is always divisible for integers greater than 1.

Let's use synthetic division:

1  |   1x^n     + 0x^(n-1)    +0x^(n-2) + ....+0x^3+0x^2+0x -1

  |                  1                 1                      1         1        1     1

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

      1              1                 1                      1         1         1      0

We see the remainder is 0 which means that divides .

The quotient is .

3 1/3 x 2 3/5 = 8 2/3

step-by-step explanation:

just multiply the first number by the second number to get your answer.

75

step-by-step explanation:

you do x-29=46 (the number of cantaloupes sold)

in order to find x, you have to find what minus 29 equals 46, meaning you'd have to add 29 to 46.

29+46=75

if you replace x with 75, the equation looks like:

75-29=46

x=75