Mathematics, 18.10.2019 17:30 sti192

Super easy question! replace ∗ with a monomial so that the derived expression may be represented as a square of a binomial:

* −42pq+49q^2

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More questions: Mathematics Another questions

Super easy question! replace ∗ with a monomial so that the derived expression may be represented as a square of a binomial: * −42pq+49q^2

Answers

Another question on Mathematics

Super easy question! replace ∗ with a monomial so that the derived expression may be represented as a square of a binomial:

* −42pq+49q^2