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Mathematics, 03.12.2019 04:31 fay1016

The inverse of $x$ in the linear congruence $x$ ≡ $y$ (mod $z$ ) is $x^{-1}$ . if i multiplied both sides of the equation with $x^{-1}$ , so i could get something in the form of $x$ ≡ 1 (mod $z$ ), isn't that multiplying by $1/x$ , therefore dividing by $x$ ? isn't division not allowed in linear congruences?

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The inverse of [tex]x[/tex] in the linear congruence [tex]x[/tex] ≡ [tex]y[/tex] (mod [tex]z[/tex])...

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