Why is C the answer for this question?

Step-by-step explanation:

A left Riemann sum approximates a definite integral as:

Given ∫₂⁸ cos(x²) dx:

a = 2, b = 8, and f(x) = cos(x²)

Therefore, Δx = 6/n and x = 2 + (6/n) (k − 1).

Plugging into the sum:

∑₁ⁿ cos((2 + (6/n) (k − 1))²) (6/n)

Therefore, the answer is C.  Notice that answer D would be a right Riemann sum rather than a left (uses k instead of k−1).

shift 4 units up, and 1 unit left.

it will translate f(x) = 3^x to g(x) = 3^(x+1) + 4

your question is incomplete, write all the numbers in the sequence that it tells you.  

step-by-step explanation: