On the basis of data from 1990 to 2006, the median income y in the year x for men and women is approximated by the equations given below, where x=0 corresponds to 1990 and y is in constant 2006 dollars. If these equations remain valid in the future, in what year will the median income of men and women be the same? Men: -236x + 2y = 56,939 Women: -838x + 3y = 41,655

The median income would be the same, based on these equations, in approximately 90.4 years time, which is around approximately in the year 2080

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the approximate equations for men and women respectively:

Where X stands for number of years and y stands for median. Since we are looking for the year, x, where the median, y, would be the same, then we have to rewrite both equations such that y would be the subject of the equations, why? So that, we can have an equation for the median income, and whenever the median income becomes equal, we would have a certain number years, X, that would happen, here is what I'm trying to say:

The first equation can be rewritten as:

Dividing both sides by 2, we have:

Similarly, from the second equation we have:

Dividing both sides by 3, we have:

Now, we have the equations in terms of y, from both equations we can say:

We have to solve for x, the number of years, in order to get when y, the median would be equal.

Multiply both sides of the last equation by 6 we get:

Which gives:

Collecting like terms we have:

We then have:

Dividing both sides of the last equation by 968

We get:

(approximately)

Therefore the number years we need for the median income to be the same is approximately 90.4years which will fall around 2080. And that is the required answer.

these sign is used to tell weather the number is greater or less than the number   <   or >     but this sign means its equal =    

hope this you and

step-by-step explanation: