The inverse of F(x) is a function

Step-by-step explanation:

Let f be a function having domain in the set X, and range in the set Y. Then f would be invertible if there exists a function g having domain Y and range X, such as:

In other words, the function is applied to an input x, and gives an outcome of y, then its inverse function, let say , can be applied to y to give the result of x.

In other words,

y = f(x) if and only if x = g(y)

For example, considering the function

the inverse is:

step-by-step explanation:

step-by-step explanation:

this can be solved first with pythagorean theorem, which tells us to square both legs of the triangle and sum it. this will be equal to the square of the hypotenuse.

the hypotenuse is the side "opposite" the 90 degree angle, which is x.

so we can write using pythagorean theorem,

simplifying:

to further simplify this radical, we need to use the property  

thus