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Mathematics, 25.03.2020 18:43 aguilarjose

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

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