Help please :) The polar coordinates of a point are unique. Is this false?

This is false.

One example: consider the origin, (0, 0) in Cartesian coordinates. In polar coordinates, any point with will result in the same point, since is the distance of a given point to the origin. So for infinitely many values of , the point will always be 0 units away from (0, 0).

the entire expression should be subtracted from 30. to subtract the quantity, distribute the negative sign, which changes the signs on the terms. so, the –2 changes to positive and gets added to 30 instead of subtracted from it.

hope this ! ^w^

i dont know sorry

step-by-step explanation: