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Mathematics, 07.04.2020 18:25 thompsonmark0616

Find a counterexample to show that the statement is false. Assume all sets are subsets of a universal set U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. (Enter your answers for A, B, and C in roster notation as a comma-separated list of sets. Enter EMPTY or βˆ… for the empty set.)For all sets A, B, and C, A βˆͺ (B βˆ’ C) = (A βˆͺ B) βˆ’ (A βˆͺ C).

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