4. What number is its own additive inverse? Why?

0 (zero)

Step-by-step explanation:

It is the only Rational number, which is its own additive inverse.

Additive inverse of ….

2 is -2

-3 is 3

7/9 is -7/9

-1 is 1

1 is -1

I gave a few examples above, each is additive inverse of the other because their sum = 0. For finding additive inverse we only need to change its sign., and if we need both numbers equal, it has to be 0. Since 0+0 = 0.

Hope this Helps!!!

, and

for

step-by-step explanation:

we can analyze the pattern at which the terms increase. let us denote , , , so that we can call

note the following:

the pattern: to get the next term value, we just add the next term number (e.g. 1st, 2nd, to the previous term value (term values are the given numbers in the question, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15,

from , to get to , we add

from , to get to , we add

etc.

we need to form a recursive formula, a formula that has the next term as a function of the previous term. so a possible recursive formula can be

, and for

48 / 6 = x

in this case, x will equal the amount of money in each card!

x therefore will be 8.

trent had $8 in each birthday card.